In reverse order, from himself leading backwards, to how Mary was conceived and by whom,
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Why did Jesus refer to himself by the epithet ' son of man'? To say he was not, or to emphasize that he was? All four of the Gospel writers are unanimous, what a peculiar mannerism! Jesus would say only what was true as much as he was true to what he said and meant. And to whatever he said, more-so if off-repeated, better regard it as factual. He did not play with words, his words were literal, and to the point. Son of man, literally means his son-ship to a man (not named) in the very way as how ' son of Mary' is accepted to mean his son-ship to a woman (named).
Strange, but true
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As Spoken by:
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The Term
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Interpretation
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Conclusion
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| Jesus |
Son of Man, (Ibn Adam) |
He is God's son (Christians)
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How, unbelievable So? |
| Allah |
Son of Mary, (Ibn Maryiam) |
He is Fatherless (Muslims) |
How, unbelievable So? |
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From the tongue of Jesus, then twinned and endorsed by Allah, each so simply worded, one to fit the other, 'him' and 'her', man and woman, Adam and Mariam. What is left out or what can be added?
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Gospel
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Son of Man |
Son of Mary |
| Matthew |
31 Times |
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| Mark |
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| Luke |
25 Times |
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| John |
08 Times |
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What everybody know about Jesus and what nobody doubt or differ on are:
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In his life on earth, he was born, seen, touched, and lived in the embodiment of a man.
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He was conceived and developed in the body of a woman and born through her.
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| 3. |
To live, he had to eat and drink, rest and sleep, he walked and talked and he was subject to the calls of nature like every other human being |
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Comments
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Jesus was a man, truly so, in every respect. Seen, known, and accepted as such.
'This is he of whom I said, after me cometh a man, which is preferred before me.'
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